1. Does the company's failure to make a wage adjustment consistent with past practice on July 1, 2002 constitute a violation of the employer's duty to bargain in good faith? Explain your reasoning.
2. If an employer were found guilty of bad-faith bargaining in a case like this, should employees be entitled to a back-pay remedy? If so, how could the NLRB determine the appropriate amount to be awarded?
DATE
Question answered on Jul 22, 2018
PRICE: $17
Solution~000685323.zip (18.37 KB)